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Date:         Wed, 25 Jan 2006 15:42:29 -0300
Reply-To:     Hector Maletta <hmaletta@fibertel.com.ar>
Sender:       "SPSSX(r) Discussion" <SPSSX-L@LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
From:         Hector Maletta <hmaletta@fibertel.com.ar>
Subject:      Re: logistic regression interpretations
Comments: To: Ola S Rostant <rostanto@msu.edu>
In-Reply-To:  <E1F1mOg-0002Dm-RL@sys23.mail.msu.edu>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="us-ascii"

I assume Male=1 and Female=0 in your dependent variable (make the necessary adjustments in this answer if the reverse was the case). The coefficient Exp(B) equals the log odds of the event of preferring a male doctor over a female one, per additional point of clinical competence. If the clinical competence scale goes up by one point, the odds of preferring a male doctor go up by 40.7%. Hector

-----Mensaje original----- De: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:SPSSX-L@LISTSERV.UGA.EDU] En nombre de Ola S Rostant Enviado el: Wednesday, January 25, 2006 12:17 PM Para: SPSSX-L@LISTSERV.UGA.EDU Asunto: logistic regression interpretations

Dear list,

I'm having trouble interpreting the odds of a continuous predictor in a logistic regression.

This is my model: Gender preference for OB/GYN doctor(DV)= race (majority vs. minority) + educ (hs vs. college) + age (<35 or >36)+ clinical competence (this is a continuous variable which represents perception of physician competence).

In my output, the Exp(B) for clinical competence is 1.407. How do I interpret this? Can anyone suggest an online resource?

All suggestions are welcomed,

Ola


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